What happened to the Greeks of the Seleucid Empire?

Where are the Seleucid Greeks?

(InB4 Kalash people. We’re pretty sure they’re not Greeks.)

One can only presume, they assimilated. The ruling class would have been Greek for a fair while; royalty certainly was. But there’s no reason to think the majority of Greeks didn’t intermarry. Not that we’d know much about it, because the contemporaries didn’t pay that much attention to ethnic difference. Lucian of Samosata is quite happy to tell us he’s “Assyrian”, and wrote a book on the religious history of Syria; but everything he wrote was firmly enmeshed in Greek literary culture.

What did they leave behind? The architecture of places like Palmyra. The tradition of human-looking statues in India, including statues of the Buddha. A Greco-Bactrian letter in Unicode: Sho (letter). Awe of Greek learning, inherited by the Arabs. Lucian himself. The koine of the New Testament (although the vehicle of Eastern Orthodoxy was Syriac, not Greek). And lots of stories about Alexander, including those involving Dhul-Qarnayn.

What is the etymology of orichalchum, and is it related to chalk/talcum or calcite?

Wiktionary is your friend:

calx is probably from χάλιξ chalix: “pebble”:

Unknown, perhaps Pre-Greek. Probably cognate, ancestor, or descendant of Latin calx ‎(“limestone, chalk”)

χαλκός “copper”:

Uncertain. Has been compared to Proto-Slavic *želězo ‎(“iron”), Latin ferrum, and Hittite [script needed] ‎(ḫapalki-). Perhaps related to κάλχη ‎(kálkhē, “purple”). Ultimately, Proto-Indo-European origin seems unlikely and the word is probably a borrowing.

… So if calx is indeed from Greek, we have a non-Hellenic chalik– stem for “pebble”, and a non-Hellenic chalk– stem for “copper”.

We can’t rule out that they’re related somehow; and copper and limestone are both, um, minerals. But… probably not.

What language first introduced punctuation such as the period, comma, exclamation point, and question mark?

See Punctuation on Wikipedia. David Crystal has a lovely book out on the history of punctuation: Making a Point.

As Adam Mathias Bittlingmayer indicated, there were anticipations of punctuation for a while; the notion of systematically indicating pauses (period, comma) was a Hellenistic Greek invention, which became systematic in the late Empire.

Punctuation as we know it is a mediaeval Latin thing, and it kept evolving up until after the invention of printing; parentheses for example are a 16th century thing. The question mark is 8th century; quote marks as we know them (as opposed to quote marks the way email does them) is 12th century.

But the main written language of Western Europe was Latin up until at least the 16th century, and that’s the language for which most punctuation we are familiar with was introduced

Where does discretion’s choice meaning come from?

And to add to Kelsey McLeod’s answer, the notion of decision, choice came first. The notion of surreptitiousness comes later: it’s using your capability of making good decisions, in order not to divulge that much, considering the social factors at play. It’s being discerning (which is in fact the same verb).

From OED, it all happened in Late Latin:

(ii) classical Latin discrētiōn- , discrētiō separation, division, distinction, discrimination, in post-classical Latin also discernment (Vulgate; early 3rd cent. in Tertullian), prudence (5th cent.), caution, circumspection (5th or 6th cent.), as a form of address [“your discretion!”, towards a cleric] (8th cent.; frequently from 12th cent. in British sources) < discrēt– , past participial stem of discernere discern v. + –iō -ion suffix1.

< (i) Anglo-Norman and Middle French discrecion, discretion (French discrétion) discernment, wisdom, sound judgement (c1165 in Old French), freedom to decide as one sees fit (15th cent.), separation, distinction, discontinuity (c1400), in Anglo-Norman also disparity (1139), interval, distance (15th cent.), also used with a possessive adjective as a form of address to a person in authority (15th cent.),

The first really obvious example I see in the OED of “choosing not to speak” and not just “being thoughtful in what you speak” is:

1597 Bacon Ess. f. 3, Discretion of Speech is more than eloquence.

Why is an article inserted before a proper noun that has been qualified by an adjective?

Proper nouns in English are not normally qualified by adjectives; the adjective would be taken to be part of the proper noun (This is Lucky Phil).

Some authors do qualify proper nouns with adjectives, although as this discussion notes (Adjective with proper noun), it is stylistically quite marked (“Stylistically, attributively modifying a proper noun isn’t something people do in normal conversation. It strikes me as newspaper-ese”.)

When that does happen, the proper noun is considered to be acting more like a common noun: it’s as if the adjective is being used to narrow down which of the avatars of the person is being considered. (A bewildered Elliot, as opposed to a contented Elliot; The Amazing Mr Fox, as opposed to The Humdrum Mr Fox.) Hence the use of the article.

Is there a keyboard shortcut for superscript and subscript text on Mac OSX?

Originally Answered:

How do you type superscript’s shortcut on a Mac?

In Microsoft Word: Shift-Clover-Plus.

But that is specific to Word. There is no general shortcut across all or most apps, the way Clover-I is for Italic. In Safari, for example, Shift-Clover-Plus zooms in.

What is the Latin translation of “healing is not linear”?

I’ll take a different template, with Alberto Yagos’ as an inspiration.

When Ptolemy I asked if there were any shortcuts for plodding through the Elements, Euclid supposedly said, “there is no royal road to geometry”: Euclid – Wikiquote

The first Latin translation of the quote is Non est regia ad Geometriam via.

Non est regia ad curationem via? “There’s no royal road to healing”?

Or tweaking Alberto Yagos’ proposal, “the road to healing is not straight”: Via ad curationem non recta est.

What is the root of word “Havales”, denoting in Greek, “spending time, having fun”?

A magnificent resource I have just stumbled on, in seeing if someone has already answered this question (do I look like a Turcologist to you?) is tourkika.com. An online Turkish grammar resource for Greek learners of the language, with lots of etymology for loan words into Greek.

The etymology… is enlightening.

Χαβαλές – havale. From Arabic حوالة (ḥawāla), meaning “transfer”. The phrase havale etmek in Turkish means to refer someone, to delegate someone to do something, to transfer responsibility to someone else.

What do Greeks do when they’ve been entrusted a task, and they’ve successfully delegated it to someone else?

They sit around a café, talk shit, play backgammon, crack jokes, have an ouzo.

You know.

Κάνουν χαβαλέ. “Doing havale”. Having fun.

EDIT: The related adverb χαβαλέ (Λεξικό της κοινής νεοελληνικής) means “doing something without serious effort”: Δε διάβασα· έδωσα εξετάσεις χαβαλέ “I didn’t study; I sat the exams havale”. Meaning “as if I delegated it to someone else, without taking responsibility for it”.

What made up Greek term could be used for this pretend medical speciality; “The study and exploration of careers for doctors.”?

I’m going to continue with James Cottam’s coinage, done in comments to James Cottam’s answer to Does this made up Latin/Greek word, Vitaemedology, make sense for the following phrase “The study of careers for doctors.”

iatrurgology ἰατρουργολογία. Doctor work-ology.

But let’s see what others have to say…

What makes diaspora groups such as the Armenians, Jews, etc. so successful? Did the diaspora itself have some marked impact on the culture and trajectories of these groups or is it something else entirely?

A socially marginalised group will not have access to the normal institutional advantages of members of the host society—connections, class privilege, leisure time, cultural familiarity etc. etc. Members of that group will be more highly driven to succeed, to redress those disadvantages.

They will be more strongly motivated to succeed, if they see exemplars of success around them—if some members of the diaspora have already succeeded despite social marginalisation, or if they are intermixed with the host society (not ghettoised), so that they are exposed to paradigms of success from within the host society.

If OTOH they’re ghettoised, and if the diaspora society is insular, so that they are not exposed to paradigms of success—then, not so much. There is less incentive to succeed, if the only experience you have is of failure.

And if the diaspora knows what success looks like, they will use whatever levers the host society does not expressly or implicitly block them from using. Such as public education.

That, btw, is why I did not know any Greeks in Australia doing linguistics when I went to uni. That’s a luxury of established ethnicities. I only started seeing Greeks in linguistics classes when I was lecturing.