My Greek friend has told me that the Greek language allows the expression of logical propositions in a way that is more natural and clearer than English. How true is this?

I look forward to OP’s examples from his friends (per comment to Steve Massey), but I don’t buy it. What little Greek logic I’ve read in the original sounds pretty woolly by modern standards.

Oh, and the notion that a modern Greek speaker would intuitively grok Aristotelian logic in the original, because Hellenes! — nah, burden of proof is on OP’s friend.

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