Why does the US have their own variation of English (differences including ‘color’ instead of ‘colour’ and ‘urbanization’ instead of ‘urbanisation’)?


There have been many proposals for spelling reform in English over the years, and in fact the variant spellings color and –ize have been around for a long time. (They reference Latin and Greek respectively, whereas colour and –ise are taken from French.)

As discussed in English-language spelling reform – Wikipedia, the spelling reforms proposed by Noah Webster had the most success of any, but they only succeeded in the US. Not all of his proposals were accepted: see 26 of Noah Webster’s Spelling Changes That Didn’t Catch On

Where do (active) Quora users come from percentage wise?

Active users are roughly 3% of all users, last time the now deactivated Laura Hale checked: Percentages of active accounts by Laura Hale on quora numbers. Is there a significant differential between active and inactive users for the national proportion of users? Maybe, but I don’t think Laura had looked into it.

The latest data from Alexa (Mar 2017) is:

Quora.com Traffic, Demographics and Competitors

  • 40% US
  • 15% India
  • 6% UK
  • 4% Canada
  • 2% Japan

India exceeded the US in 2014, by quite a margin: Shreesha Mokhashi’s answer to What are the numbers and percentages of Quora members by country?

Were ancient Greeks and Persians aware of their Indo-European roots?

Vote #1 Daniel Ross: Daniel Ross’ answer to Were ancient Greeks and Persians aware of their Indo-European roots?

I don’t have a rabbit to pull out of my hat, like Daniel Ross mentioned I did for Latin and Greek. But there is a related question:

History: During Alexander’s invasions, would his soldiers have found Old Persian or Indic to be somewhat familiar sounding given their closeness to Greek?

And my take in that question was:

Probably. And they probably wouldn’t have cared.

Not aware of any ancient authority explicit pointing out cognates, even though some words of Old Persian Herodotus cited were, I think, cognates.

Is Greek language an Illuminati language; it can be used to translate the earliest languages where as Latin cannot, is that true?

Of course any Illuminati that you have in mind as relating to Ancient Greece will have precious little to do with the historical freethinkers of Bavaria. So in answering this question, I am safely untethered from historical fact, and find myself adrift in a world of which Meek Mill raps “I don’t have to join the illuminati just to get a new Bugatti”. [24]

Yet even in this fondest flight of Conspiracy Theory, I have to pause and point out that to the ancient Greeks, Egypt was the site of magical and poorly understood lore, and Greeks only occasionally understood what hieroglyphics were about.

If Greek could be used to translate all those other ancient languages, they had a funny way of showing it. Like the Chinese, and for the same reasons, the Greeks were relatively incurious about other cultures — up until Hellenistic times, when people from those other cultures were themselves writing in Greek.

In any case, the only things Greek does that Latin doesn’t are a greater propensity towards compounds, definite articles, and the optative. You could argue that makes Greek better suited for translating Sanskrit, and perhaps German. It would be a pretty tenuous argument.

Though it would be an argument that the historical Bavarian Illuminati would no doubt approve.